
|

October 14th, 2008, 07:46 PM
|
|
Senior Member
|
|
Join Date: Oct 2008
Posts: 384
|
|
True Count break even
Now I have read that if you play basic stratagy perfectly you will win 42% of the hands but with doubling down, splitting etc your total win rate(amount of money won vs money bet) will be roughly 49% (My casino is split and double after split, pays 3:2 and hit of soft seventeen). What does the true count have to be so that your total win rate will be 50% or higher?
|

October 14th, 2008, 08:05 PM
|
|
Executive Member
|
|
Join Date: Apr 2008
Posts: 1,902
|
|
Quote:
Originally Posted by 1357111317
What does the true count have to be so that your total win rate will be 50% or higher?
|
I believe the true count has to be +17 before you start winning more often than you lose. I'd guess it'd have to be +20 or higher before your win percentage breaks 50%.
|

October 14th, 2008, 08:07 PM
|
|
Senior Member
|
|
Join Date: Sep 2008
Posts: 120
|
|
As far as I know, and guys correct me if I am wrong, player's advantage goes up roughly by 0.5% with every increase in true count of 1. TC 0, gives the house an advantage of 0.5%. At Tc +1, you are roughly playing at 50-50 chance (with perfect basic strategy)...and so on.
|

October 14th, 2008, 08:12 PM
|
|
Member
|
|
Join Date: Sep 2008
Location: New Jersey
Posts: 77
|
|
you dont need to win most hands. you just have to win the right ones like doubles/splits/blackjacks and u gain ur advantage that way
but as DonR said, you're edge is even with the casino when TC = +1
|

October 14th, 2008, 08:17 PM
|
|
Member
|
|
Join Date: Oct 2008
Posts: 3
|
|
ya 17+?
can anyone explain that to me?
i understand the true count +1 thing.. adding .5% to out advantage
thanks!
|

October 14th, 2008, 08:29 PM
|
 |
Executive Member
|
|
Join Date: Nov 2006
Location: Midwest
Posts: 1,306
|
|
357
Quote:
Originally Posted by 1357111317
Now I have read that if you play basic stratagy perfectly you will win 42% of the hands but with doubling down, splitting etc your total win rate(amount of money won vs money bet) will be roughly 49% (My casino is split and double after split, pays 3:2 and hit of soft seventeen). What does the true count have to be so that your total win rate will be 50% or higher?
|
There is a problem about trying to put these percentages into granite. There is always fluctuations both ways, usually the higher the count the greater chance the dealer will have a face or 10 up, even an ace, you must steel yourself to this inevitability and be able to deal with it. You need alot of skillz to win in this game, mental, physical, emotional, tactical, along with a good "count". If you have a tc of +5 and up you have to go into full attack mode and pray you are on your game and that you then get the cards you will NEED with the big bets out  It can get very dicey, fast,, with nothing for sure, not in reality. It is not easy, it is not like in the movies.
CP
__________________
"Midwest Masters Of Advantage", "Strength and Honor."
|

October 14th, 2008, 08:35 PM
|
|
Senior Member
|
|
Join Date: Oct 2008
Posts: 384
|
|
Quote:
Originally Posted by jaredmt
you dont need to win most hands. you just have to win the right ones like doubles/splits/blackjacks and u gain ur advantage that way
but as DonR said, you're edge is even with the casino when TC = +1
|
Yeah thats what I meant, the break even point in terms of money not hand winning percentage.
|

October 14th, 2008, 08:44 PM
|
|
Executive Member
|
|
Join Date: Apr 2008
Posts: 1,902
|
|
Quote:
Originally Posted by 1357111317
Yeah thats what I meant, the break even point in terms of money not hand winning percentage.
|
Okay, that's very different. Depending on the rules, the advantage will shift to you somewhere around TC +1.
Keep in mind though that even at TC +5 you will lose more hands than you win! The reason why you have the advantage is that you split more, you double more, and more of your splits and doubles will work.
Most of the time you win 42-44% and lose 48-50% of your hands, but your average win will be greater than your average loss. You get the advantage mostly because your average winning bet goes up, and only a little bit because your win percentage goes up.
|

October 14th, 2008, 08:57 PM
|
 |
Executive Member
|
|
Join Date: Apr 2007
Location: So,IL
Posts: 1,764
|
|
Quote:
Originally Posted by callipygian
Okay, that's very different. Depending on the rules, the advantage will shift to you somewhere around TC +1.
|
Provided he spreads about 1:2, right? Meaning if he spread 1:2 in (all)positive counts then it would basically be a break-even game.
__________________
Jack Jackson
Last edited by jack,jackson; October 14th, 2008 at 09:00 PM.
|

October 14th, 2008, 09:06 PM
|
|
Executive Member
|
|
Join Date: Apr 2008
Posts: 1,902
|
|
Quote:
Originally Posted by jack,jackson
Provided he spreads about 1:2, right? Meaning if he spread 1:2 in (all)positive counts then it would basically be a break-even game.
|
I'm not 100% sure, but off the top of my head, no, because 0 is the most common TC and your advantage is negative.
You have the advantage at TC +1 (or +2 in some cases) whether or not you bet more or not. If you Wong in at +1/+2, you can get an advantage without ever spreading your bet because you only play when you have the advantage.
|
| Thread Tools |
|
|
| Display Modes |
Linear Mode
|
Posting Rules
|
You may not post new threads
You may not post replies
You may not post attachments
You may not edit your posts
HTML code is Off
|
|
|
All times are GMT -6. The time now is 08:53 AM.
|