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Old January 15th, 2009, 11:26 AM
Thunder Thunder is offline
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Default Why is 50% penetration in 2 decks worse than 75% in 8 decks

Just out of curiosity, why do we counters prefer say a 75% penetration 8 deck game vs say 50% two deck game? I would think since the two deck game has only 1 deck remaining after the cut card vs 2 for 8 decks, that you would get more favorable counts with the two deck game. In addition because the distribution is lower in the 2 deck game, you'd more likely be getting the cards you expected.
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Old January 15th, 2009, 11:30 AM
callipygian callipygian is offline
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Thunder View Post
Just out of curiosity, why do we counters prefer say a 75% penetration 8 deck game vs say 50% two deck game?
Is that a fact? I'm not sure it is.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Thunder
I would think since the two deck game has only 1 deck remaining after the cut card vs 2 for 8 decks, that you would get more favorable counts with the two deck game. In addition because the distribution is lower in the 2 deck game, you'd more likely be getting the cards you expected.
This would be more or less my reasoning that 50% on 2-deck is better.

75% penetration on 8 decks is better in places where you can Wong effectively - because there are zillions of games with 6-8D/75% penetration, you almost never have to play at negative counts.
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Old January 15th, 2009, 11:48 AM
bjcount bjcount is offline
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For a simple response, the more cards unseen behind the cut card, decreases the inherent value of your count aka floating advantage. There is actually much more to it then that. I will run a quick sim for you to show the comparisons. of dd 50% 1-4 spread vs 8d 75% 1-12 spread. I wouldn't agree that that 2d is better in this instance - you are seeing only 50% of the cards. In the 8d when you have the advantage there is the possibility that it could run much longer then just a few hands, but as said by callypian, if you wong then the 8d works much better for you then the results below which are play all.

Top sim is dd 1-4 spread at 50% pen
Btm sim is 8d 1-12 spread at 75%pen

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Last edited by bjcount; January 15th, 2009 at 11:59 AM.
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Old January 15th, 2009, 11:58 AM
bjcount bjcount is offline
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And heres a 8d 75% WONG OUT AT -1 for comparison: (disregard the playall note in betting strat)
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Last edited by bjcount; January 15th, 2009 at 12:00 PM.
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Old January 15th, 2009, 01:50 PM
White Guy White Guy is offline
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That Sim looks fairly easy to use exactly what I am looking for. Which one is it?? Would it change signifigantly with 1-8 spread at DD??
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Old January 15th, 2009, 02:00 PM
bjcount bjcount is offline
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Quote:
Originally Posted by White Guy View Post
That Sim looks fairly easy to use exactly what I am looking for. Which one is it?? Would it change signifigantly with 1-8 spread at DD??
It's CVData and I ran a quick sim but there are many options to modify. The DD with a 1-8 would be higher score. If you used cvcx it would build the optimum spread for you. Here are the results for simple 1-8 spread 2u increase per TC 0=2u, tc1=4u, etc...
Can you get away with 1-8 on dd?


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Old January 15th, 2009, 02:13 PM
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Automatic Monkey Automatic Monkey is offline
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Thunder View Post
Just out of curiosity, why do we counters prefer say a 75% penetration 8 deck game vs say 50% two deck game? I would think since the two deck game has only 1 deck remaining after the cut card vs 2 for 8 decks, that you would get more favorable counts with the two deck game. In addition because the distribution is lower in the 2 deck game, you'd more likely be getting the cards you expected.
Because in an 8/2 game you have 6 decks for a positive count to develop, and you can deal out an awful lot of small cards in 6 decks. In a 2/1 game by the time you get any kind of a count it's time to shuffle.

Also you can do the backcounting and extreme spreads in an 8D game that you could never get away with in a DD game.
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Old January 15th, 2009, 04:17 PM
moo321 moo321 is offline
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It depends on the spread for both. If you're spreading 1-10 on the double deck and using some indices, you're probably better off. If you back-count the shoe, it's WAY better.
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Old January 15th, 2009, 05:01 PM
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EasyRhino EasyRhino is offline
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Automatic Monkey View Post
Because in an 8/2 game you have 6 decks for a positive count to develop, and you can deal out an awful lot of small cards in 6 decks.
Also, once you get to that high count, you have a better chance of the high cards finally coming into play, as well.
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Old January 15th, 2009, 09:48 PM
Thunder Thunder is offline
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Quote:
Originally Posted by EasyRhino View Post
Also, once you get to that high count, you have a better chance of the high cards finally coming into play, as well.
Why would you have a better chances of high cards coming your way in an 8 deck game at TC=+3 vs in a 2 deck game with TC= +3? I would argue the exact opposite since the distribution is a lot lower in a 2 deck game.
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