I'm trying to find the optimal bet ramp for a side bet, but am not sure if what I am doing (same method as for regular BJ) makes sense.
Let's assume you have a side bet of suited BJ pays 75 to 1.
Off the top, odds of a suited BJ are ~ 84 to 1, so you'd be at an ~ 11% disadvantage. If you put money on this side bet off the top, variance would be ~ 68 (from a simple variance calculation). I am ignoring the BJ hand variance for now, looking only at the side bet variance.
Now for creating a betting ramp: if we look at a high count, for example when instead of the odds of a suited BJ being 84:1 they are 60:1, the same variance calculation shows variance of ~ 95.
This is more or less in line with what CVD sims throw up: is it correct to use EV with these variances for an optimal betting ramp ? Or are these variances too large to be applicable for kelly bet sizing ?
Thanks
D.
Let's assume you have a side bet of suited BJ pays 75 to 1.
Off the top, odds of a suited BJ are ~ 84 to 1, so you'd be at an ~ 11% disadvantage. If you put money on this side bet off the top, variance would be ~ 68 (from a simple variance calculation). I am ignoring the BJ hand variance for now, looking only at the side bet variance.
Now for creating a betting ramp: if we look at a high count, for example when instead of the odds of a suited BJ being 84:1 they are 60:1, the same variance calculation shows variance of ~ 95.
This is more or less in line with what CVD sims throw up: is it correct to use EV with these variances for an optimal betting ramp ? Or are these variances too large to be applicable for kelly bet sizing ?
Thanks
D.