2 hands

Sage

Active Member
#1
To reduce the variance, I’m considering spreading to two hands when the count is >=3, while playing 1 hand @ TC 2 & under. At $10 table, I’m using a spread of 1 to 10 in a 6 deck game. There is no heat in my 4 local Indian casinos.

What is the best ramp? Spread to two with $$ on each hand = [TC-1] times $unit, Thus a max bet of 70% [$70 on each hand] of the 1 hand $100 bet would require TC = 8, a count that seems remote.
Have also been told to bet the max or 2 hands @ $50 @ TC =3 & above. That seems aggressive. What is the best middle ground? :confused:
 

Homeschool

Well-Known Member
#2
Why don't you just play 2 hands all the time, and reduce your variance all the time? :) (except very negative counts of course)


Homeschool
 
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bigplayer

Well-Known Member
#4
Sage said:
To reduce the variance, I’m considering spreading to two hands when the count is >=3, while playing 1 hand @ TC 2 & under. At $10 table, I’m using a spread of 1 to 10 in a 6 deck game. There is no heat in my 4 local Indian casinos.

What is the best ramp? Spread to two with $$ on each hand = [TC-1] times $unit, Thus a max bet of 70% [$70 on each hand] of the 1 hand $100 bet would require TC = 8, a count that seems remote.
Have also been told to bet the max or 2 hands @ $50 @ TC =3 & above. That seems aggressive. What is the best middle ground? :confused:
You are costing yourself money by doing this, especially when heads up. If you spread to two hands with the same total action you do reduce your variance, but you also eat up the positive rounds faster up to 50% faster. If you're at a full table you still cost yourself unless you increase the total size of your wager to at least match the number of lost rounds. You have to bet 50% more total money playing two spots heads up as you would playing one spot to justify it or you are actually helping the casino by playing two spots. Because of co-variance of hands betting say 2x150 versus 1x200 the variance is the same either way.

Most people put out their ultimate top bet at +5 True where you would have around a 2% to 2.25% advantage. If you have a 10,000 bankroll your max bet would be around $160 so your betting unit would be 1x40 or 2x$30. You should bet 2x$30 at +2, 2x$60 at +3, 2x$90 at +4, and 2x$120 at +5 (full Kelly) and the optimum bet the rest of the time is as close to $0 as you can get away with.
 
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FLASH1296

Well-Known Member
#5
The surest route to generating heat is by playing 2 spots while the count is tasty.

This is not hyperbole. Pay heed to this caveat.

Every novice floor_person looks for this "in-your-face" move.

Best is to play 2 hands "off the top" and only drop to 1 hand if need be.

Do not return to 2 hands, no matter what the count, until the next shoe.
 
#6
Sage said:
To reduce the variance, I’m considering spreading to two hands when the count is >=3, while playing 1 hand @ TC 2 & under. At $10 table, I’m using a spread of 1 to 10 in a 6 deck game. There is no heat in my 4 local Indian casinos.

What is the best ramp? Spread to two with $$ on each hand = [TC-1] times $unit, Thus a max bet of 70% [$70 on each hand] of the 1 hand $100 bet would require TC = 8, a count that seems remote.
Have also been told to bet the max or 2 hands @ $50 @ TC =3 & above. That seems aggressive. What is the best middle ground? :confused:
Is this play all or wong?? 1-10 will not cut it in play-all.
How big is your BJ BR? zg
 
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FLASH1296

Well-Known Member
#7
If this is a 6 decker S17 with good pen' (>75%) then the absolute smallest spread that you should use is 12-1.
I would suggest 16 to 1, especially as you are apparently a Level One count player.

  • [*]At Zero T.C. bet 2 x 10
    [*]At negative counts bet 1 x $10.
    [*]At +1 bet 2 x $20.
    [*]At +2 bet 2 x $30.
    [*]At +3 bet 2 x $40
    [*]At +4 bet 2 x $50
    [*]At +5 bet 2 x $60
    [*]At +6 bet 2 x $70
    [*]At +7 bet 2 x $80
This spread will look like 6-1 but is 16-1.
 
#8
FLASH1296 said:
If this is a 6 decker S17 with good pen' (>75%) then the absolute smallest spread that you should use is 12-1.
I would suggest 16 to 1, especially as you are apparently a Level One count player.

  • [*]At Zero T.C. bet 2 x 10
    [*]At negative counts bet 1 x $10.
    [*]At +1 bet 2 x $20.
    [*]At +2 bet 2 x $30.
    [*]At +3 bet 2 x $40
    [*]At +4 bet 2 x $50
    [*]At +5 bet 2 x $60
    [*]At +6 bet 2 x $70
    [*]At +7 bet 2 x $80
This spread will look like 6-1 but is 16-1.
Sage - we need more info: BR size? zg
 

Sage

Active Member
#9
The pen is dealer dependent, cut card 4 ½ to 5 decks,@ 75% to 80%. I play-all, unless in the first half of the shoe, the count goes to minus 2. I normally play the last half of the shoe. I play for fun and want to win a bit, but any win is a good win. These games are close to home & comps are not worth much, a meal once in a while. BR is replaceable and not an issue, I want to stay at a $10 unit.
 

Sage

Active Member
#10
Flash:
Since it is a $10 table. The min 2 hand is 2x20. How does that effect TC = 0 & TC = 1? If they change does that effect all the TC bets?
 

FLASH1296

Well-Known Member
#11

With your Bankroll, I would suggest betting $10 from -1 to +1;
leave the table at -2, and play 2 x $25 the rest of the time.

Betting $50 on a $500 bankroll may be folly, but apparently
you can just go fetch another five 'benjamins' at will.

You will be playing against almost no House Advantage, and you can
continue to play and probably won't get belly up for a long long time.
 

Cardcounter

Well-Known Member
#12
Playing 2 hands good cover!

Playing 2 hands is a great way to increase your bet. Especally if you play for low stakes because increasing your bet is mandatory sometimes. The minimum usually doubles for two hands and goes to 5 times the minimum for 3 hands most of the time.
 
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