The chart at:
http://wizardofodds.com/blackjack/appendix9-6dh17r4.html
Shows for example: when the dealer has an Ace up and you had an 2,Ace and if you didn’t hit you would expect to lose 59.7220% which means on the other hand the dealer would have to be busting 40.278% with an Ace up (59.7220 + 40.278 = 100% no pushes in that hand)
But if you look at the chart produced at:
http://www.qfit.com/CVDPC.htm
It shows the dealer with an Ace up will bust only about 14% of the time (wither it’s one deck or 6 deck).
So there is a HUGE difference between the dealer having an Ace up and busting with one chart at 14% and the other chart showing 40%
Lets use that 6 deck shoe chart / DB any 1st 2 cards / Dealer hits soft 17 / as the example
Which chart is correct? What is the correct percentage?
http://wizardofodds.com/blackjack/appendix9-6dh17r4.html
Shows for example: when the dealer has an Ace up and you had an 2,Ace and if you didn’t hit you would expect to lose 59.7220% which means on the other hand the dealer would have to be busting 40.278% with an Ace up (59.7220 + 40.278 = 100% no pushes in that hand)
But if you look at the chart produced at:
http://www.qfit.com/CVDPC.htm
It shows the dealer with an Ace up will bust only about 14% of the time (wither it’s one deck or 6 deck).
So there is a HUGE difference between the dealer having an Ace up and busting with one chart at 14% and the other chart showing 40%
Lets use that 6 deck shoe chart / DB any 1st 2 cards / Dealer hits soft 17 / as the example
Which chart is correct? What is the correct percentage?
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