why most counting system is just up to 10 or 12x spread ??
1. most r designed or playing in USA, big spread is not advised there.i spread my top bet to 37x of my basic unit when tc is 6+
that means a 3x 20units
i do it according to 1 kelly of my bankroll
why most counting system is just up to 10 or 12x spread ??
1. most r designed or playing in USA, big spread is not advised there.
2. ur spread is 1-37 or 1-60 ?
full kelly is very risky if ur Br. = all ur money n no other income to refill.
most pros i know take 1/4 Kelly or even bigger fraction.
do u realise ROR is big.
when u encounter a big -ve swing,but always using 1 kelly to adjust the bet size
will never ruin and can make the bankroll expanding in quickest way ,
right ?
but always using 1 kelly to adjust the bet size
will never ruin and can make the bankroll expanding in quickest way ,
right ?
when u encounter a big -ve swing,
lose N units n then win N units at the following day.
u may have a new idea.
in theory, u never ruin.
thats true , u may lost half your bankroll or even more
but who gurantee you can play longer time before being blacklisted , according to 1/3 or 1/4 kelly . do u feel u can still winning the same profit in each casino?
the casino in this world is limited , our time is limited , may be u can win 10000-30000 US in each casnio , the game is over
as i know, cc play with full or half kelly is unusual.
barred in 1 casino, still many casinos u can go.
barred by ur own BANKROLL, nowhere 2 go.
for me, better game over than i am over[if i lose 90% of my br.]
only one i know play half kelly is to play sponsor's money n he didn't know
who n what is Kelly.
He has nothing now.
my Eng. is not good enough to express my sense of humour.hard 2 say - play kelly u win lot money maybe kelly go broke
u use kelly $ buy keybrd working shift key
no hear casino ban u 4 bankrolol
Full Kelly betting is ONLY efficient for games that offer only even-money bets.
The Kelly criterion does NOT say that you would bet 100% of your BR. The Kelly fraction is EV/Payoff. (So EV/4 if the payoff odds are 4:1)if you were follow full Kelly and bet 100% of your BR, you would tap out exactly 50% of the time.
I can offer up a simple example which clearly demonstrates why full Kelly is not optimal for an other than even-money bet:
Suppose someone were stupid enough to offer you a proposition, where for a fee of whatever size you wish, he'll flip a coin - and if it comes up tails, you lose; but if it comes up heads, he'll pay you QUADRUPLE. Although you have a 100% advantage over him, if you were follow full Kelly and bet 100% of your BR, you would tap out exactly 50% of the time. With a certainty of virtually 100%, he would soon have ALL of your money; whereas someone who were to bet something like half - Kelly would soon have all of the money in the entire world.
(This IS a 2-outcome bet; perhaps I'm misunderstanding what Mango's trying to sa y?)
where b=4 (your 4:1 payoff), p=q=0.5 from your 50% coin flip.(b*p - q)/b
Kelly is Kelly. The adjustment to take account of uneven betting and payoffs is the division by the variance. And that is what gives you FULL Kelly (or at least an approximation thereof). It's not an adjustment to the Kelly bet; it is the Kelly bet.I believe that the properly adjusted optimal betting strategy for blackjack is something like .6 Kelly, depending upon the rules. (Correct me if I'm wrong about the .6 figure)
I believe we're arguing the same thing. My original point was that when it comes to blackjack; if your advantage is x and you bet x% of your bankroll, you are overbetting according to Kelly. Your bet must be adjusted to adapt to the uneven betting and payoff schedules. Some people do NOT understand this, and the coin flip example that I gave was merely to help to make it clear WHY it must be adjusted.
The Kelly bet fraction is
(b*p - q)/b
where b=4 (your 4:1 payoff), p=q=0.5 from your 50% coin flip.
Hence the Full Kelly bet is (4*0.5 - 0.5)/4 = 37.5%.
As you can see from the formula, the Kelly bet is NEVER 100% of your bankroll (unless it is a sure win with p=1 and q=0). You already gave the reason.