Playing casinos with 8 decks, but the cut card is 2 decks from the end of the shoe.
To convert running count to true count then, do I divide by 8 (the total number of decks) or by 6 (the number of decks in play)?
If by 6, is that assuming an even distribution of cards in the last, unplayed 2 decks?
Thanks.
To convert running count to true count then, do I divide by 8 (the total number of decks) or by 6 (the number of decks in play)?
If by 6, is that assuming an even distribution of cards in the last, unplayed 2 decks?
Thanks.