G garmium New Member Jun 3, 2011 #1 e.g. if you have a $10 000 bankroll and vary from $20 to $100 vs someone who only plays when count is 2 or higher and bets $40 to $100 depending on count. How much more of an advantage do you have?
e.g. if you have a $10 000 bankroll and vary from $20 to $100 vs someone who only plays when count is 2 or higher and bets $40 to $100 depending on count. How much more of an advantage do you have?
FLASH1296 Well-Known Member Jun 3, 2011 #2 Nowhere remotely near the requisite information provided to address the query. e.g. rules, penetration, count used, etc.
Nowhere remotely near the requisite information provided to address the query. e.g. rules, penetration, count used, etc.
F FrankieT Well-Known Member Jun 3, 2011 #4 CVCX data viewer for the win http://www.qfit.com/cvcxonlineviewer.htm
