Hi
I don't know whether this is the best forum for this question but the article is on this site so I'll post here first. Anyway I have been reading the strategy articles on BJ tournaments and am a little confused about something. It's from the bit about getting a free hit and the section in question is below...
Let's say player A has $1300, and player B has $1100. Player A has two good choices for his bet. If he chooses to bet at least $405, he is "taking the high", since no matter what Player B bets he has the bet covered if they both win. Betting $305 actually takes the high as well, but causes problems if Player B has a good double-down hand.
It states that Player A (BR1), who is first to act in this example, should bet $405 since this is taking the high. This is where I start to get lost - if B bets $500 and either gets a BJ or doubles down and wins then he has either $1850 or $2100 and A has only $1705. If B wins a max bet only he will be at $1600 and the $305 mentioned would cover it. So where does the $405 figure come from? IF B bets $300 and doubles down then A would still have the lead. IF B bets $400 and hits a BJ then A would still have the lead.
There is no bet that A can make that will cover all of Bs options. If B does a max bet and doubles and gets $2100 A can't cover that with a single bet, he would need to double himself.
So why $405??
Now I can quite except that I am being completely thick and missing something obvious, so feel free to point it out.
Cheers
I don't know whether this is the best forum for this question but the article is on this site so I'll post here first. Anyway I have been reading the strategy articles on BJ tournaments and am a little confused about something. It's from the bit about getting a free hit and the section in question is below...
Let's say player A has $1300, and player B has $1100. Player A has two good choices for his bet. If he chooses to bet at least $405, he is "taking the high", since no matter what Player B bets he has the bet covered if they both win. Betting $305 actually takes the high as well, but causes problems if Player B has a good double-down hand.
It states that Player A (BR1), who is first to act in this example, should bet $405 since this is taking the high. This is where I start to get lost - if B bets $500 and either gets a BJ or doubles down and wins then he has either $1850 or $2100 and A has only $1705. If B wins a max bet only he will be at $1600 and the $305 mentioned would cover it. So where does the $405 figure come from? IF B bets $300 and doubles down then A would still have the lead. IF B bets $400 and hits a BJ then A would still have the lead.
There is no bet that A can make that will cover all of Bs options. If B does a max bet and doubles and gets $2100 A can't cover that with a single bet, he would need to double himself.
So why $405??
Now I can quite except that I am being completely thick and missing something obvious, so feel free to point it out.
Cheers