Sonny
Well-Known Member
To sagefrog
I think Kasi answered these questions already, but I’ll add my input even though it probably just repeats what he said.
-Sonny-
I think Kasi answered these questions already, but I’ll add my input even though it probably just repeats what he said.
Yes, absolutely. The 1.33 number is just a generic estimate. The actual variance at different TCs will usually be somewhere between 1.2 and 1.5 but I just used 1.33 to simplify things. Using numbers from a simulation should give more accurate results.sagefr0g said:would it make sense if you had a simulation that gives the standard deviations at those corresponding true counts to figue the variance from those standard deviations and then plug those variance numbers into your spread sheet instead of the number you use.
That must have been a mistake, maybe on an earlier version of the spreadsheet. They should all be 1.33.sagefr0g said:also was wondering why you use a variance = 1 for the negative tc's.
It is the variance of your bet. You will, on average, win or lose about 1.15 units on each hand because of doubles, splits, BJs, etc.sagefr0g said:also what is this variance in column D anyway.
is it variance of the TC or variance of the frequency of the TC or is it variance of EV at a TC ?
-Sonny-