bet spread

[sagefr0g]

was wondering how one is supposed to view the following scenerio with respect to how one thinks about bet spreads.....

say you bet one spot four units in one instance
then say you bet two spots of two units each ......

is the spread employed in each of those two instances equivalent?

 

[Canceler]

is the spread employed in each of those two instances equivalent?

Since dividing the amount between two hands is supposed to decrease your variance, but not your EV, I vote yes.

 

[EasyRhino]

From a risk of ruin standpoint, no. The two hands are less ruin-ey.

From the standpoint of a pit boss rating your play for comp purposes... probably yes.

From the standpoint of a counter-catcher trying to evaluate your spread... no idea.

 

[Kasi]

was wondering how one is supposed to view the following scenerio with respect to how one thinks about bet spreads.....

say you bet one spot four units in one instance
then say you bet two spots of two units each ......

is the spread employed in each of those two instances equivalent?

I know the first has more dollar variance, i.e. one standard deviation would be a wider dollar range. ($462 for the first vs $382 for the second assuming $100 unit.)

I think they have equal EV's assuming they were bet at the same advantage or disadvantage.

And I think the second would carry a lower ROR if card-counting since you could bet more over the 2 hands and have the same risk as the first.

 

[SilentBob420BMFJ]

this is also kind of related.. http://www.blackjackinfo.com/bb/showthread.php?p=53582#post53582

 

[moo321]

The spread would be considered the same, as you are putting the same amount of money into action. The risk of ruin would be less, the EV may be less, depending on how many players are at the table, the penetration, and whether it's pitch or shoe.