your talking about a 0-1 spread, which is exactly what im doing
thanks for your help but i dont think thats right.. -.0043(edge)*10(bet)*70(hands per hour)=-$3/hr, and if i only play when the running count is positive (aka true count of 1/6 or greater), im not sure what my average count would be.. we all know the average count is 0 overall, but if i only played in positive running counts, what would my average count be.. you know what, this brings up a good point.. every1 looks at the true count of +1 and thinks "thats an even game" but nobody has asked, "what is the average positive count", meaning if you ignored all counts of 0 or less, what would the average count be? if that average is greater than a true count of 1, then that means playing at a positive running count would = an advantage (on average).. people have been telling me "at a +1 run count, the house still has the advantage" which is true, but that is only at that particular instance; the house edge of .0043 is the average of all the negative and positive swings, but if i cut out 90% of the negative swings (i still am in the negative with most low running counts), that would make my average probably positive, because i still have all the positive swings, but only 10% or so of the negative swings (due to only playing at + run counts).. this also means that the absolute worst house edge i would be playing at is -.35%, and the greatest advantage i would be playing at would be "infinite".. i got .35% by doing +1(run count)/6(decks)=1/6, so -.43%(house edge)*5/6=-.35 (i subtracted my small "advantage" i got from +1 running count at the beginning of the deck from the house edge)