p8ntballsk8r
Well-Known Member
Tell me if this is an acceptable way to go about playing with a very minimal but replentishable bankroll.
I have a very large casino near by with a .66 house advantage and amazing penetration. If I backcount and only wong in when the count is favorable and I have the advantage.
I'm using the Knockout unbalanced counting system and would probably wait until the running count was right in between the pivot point and the key count.
If i'm only playing in profitable situations, I believe this would work. I suppose my main question is what % of the chips on me would I want to bet? Yes I could flat bet at an advantage, but I'd rather ramp the bet up with the increased advangtage. I realize I'd want to bet at max 50% of what I have on me if I get dealt AA or 88 and need to split, but since I may have to split, resplit, or double after splitting how much is the max I can bet in relation to what I have one me?
I have a very large casino near by with a .66 house advantage and amazing penetration. If I backcount and only wong in when the count is favorable and I have the advantage.
I'm using the Knockout unbalanced counting system and would probably wait until the running count was right in between the pivot point and the key count.
If i'm only playing in profitable situations, I believe this would work. I suppose my main question is what % of the chips on me would I want to bet? Yes I could flat bet at an advantage, but I'd rather ramp the bet up with the increased advangtage. I realize I'd want to bet at max 50% of what I have on me if I get dealt AA or 88 and need to split, but since I may have to split, resplit, or double after splitting how much is the max I can bet in relation to what I have one me?