UK-21
Well-Known Member
http://www.dailymail.co.uk/news/article-1390403/Revealed-The-man-beat-3-Atlantic-City-casinos-15-million-playing-blackjack.html
Anyone care to comment on this screamer ?
Anyone care to comment on this screamer ?
A perfect basic strategy player who has obtained a 20% loss rebate agreement is playing at a MUCH higher +EV than ANY card counter; unless the required minimum hours played is very large.
Is this common for high rollers? Are you saying that if you are a high enough roller you'll have an edge off the top with some casinos?
Correct me if I'm wrong but unless the high roller is an AP the 20% rebate doesn't give him an edge, but it does reduce the HE to .4% on an off the top HE of .5%. The house is simply giving him a "volume discount" on his play.![]()
For the sake of argument, suppose the house were stupid enough to not declare what they call a "trip". He could play ONE HAND at $100,000 and call it a "trip"; come back the next day, play one hand & call THAT a "trip"; etc.;etc. After 100 such trips, he will on the average lose slightly more than 50 times and win slightly less than 50 times. He will have won about 5 million dollars and have lost about 5 million, BUT - he gets a REBATE on the 5 million he lost, resulting in a net profit of $1 million.
Hey there sucker. I don't think I'm following your logic. On average he will lose .5% * $100k = $500 per hand, so -$50k after 100 trips. Are you saying that would on average be either 50 $100k wins and 50 $100k losses (resulting in +$5million profit), or with slightly higher probability, 49 wins and 51 losses (resulting +$4.9 million - 80% * $5.1 million = +$820k)? But what about all the other resulting outcomes (e.g. 48 wins and 52 losses, 52 wins and 48 losses) and their given probabilities! Doesn't it all end up being -.4% on average?
That somehow, given a loss rebate, within the first few hands the house edge isn't necessarily -.4%?
Won't, given the rebate, it all average to -$40k (if a .5% house edge) after all the permutations?
I think your math is wrong. It's more like if I offered to let you play at my roulette table without 0 and 00 and the odds of red coming up are 49.75% and the odds of black coming up is 50.25%. Your'e only allowed to put money on red, but I'll pay you $100 when red comes up and you only have to pay me $80 when black comes up. Isn't that a very +EV game from the outset?
Of course we all know a casino would never offer that deal. They would say give us 1000 bets (or more likely so many hours) at 10000 average bet and we'll rebate 20% of any loss. Thats 10 mil in action and if the ev is -.25 per hand the whale would expect a loss of 25000 for a rebate of 5000. At the end he could come out ahead but the rebate doesn't make it +ev off the top.
Correct me if I'm wrong but unless the high roller is an AP the 20% rebate doesn't give him an edge, but it does reduce the HE to .4% on an off the top HE of .5%. The house is simply giving him a "volume discount" on his play.![]()
Right. Of course they're not THAT stupid and they would absolutely institute a minimum amount of action to keep their advantage.
This brings to mind a rather sinister thought:
Suppose I were a casino manager, nearing retirement age. I conspire with a high roller & offer him a lucrative +EV rebate, with the idea of splitting the money afterward. I wouldn't mind getting fired for $2.9 million!
I doubt that I'm the first one who's ever thought of THIS.....![]()
You're wrong.
I did it for him. Read the post after his.Do you care to expound on that?