JCollegeGuy
Member
I'm pretty new to card counting and have looked over many different strategies and one I like in particular is Revere's advanced point count strategy. I like his because he really did his homework and gives specific percentages behind plays that a lot of counters haven't done. I've read mixed reviews in that some say that his Advanced Point Count strategy is outdated and others say that it is a very powerful system if implement correctly. Does anyone have any advice on this system compared to others? Also, I've only been able to find info on the one deck system, which is useless unless playing 6:5. Does anyone know the conversion to 6 deck? I've thought about making the conversion myself, but I'm also aware that the slightest miscalculation could destroy any percentage of advantage given by the system.
One other thing I have trouble understanding, that has somewhat to do with the Martingale system and Law of Independent Trials.
Okay, I remember reading a player about a player at a Roulette table where the table had hit red 9/10 times before he arrived. He continued to bet red and won but eventually broke even. He stated another gambler telling him he was dumb for continuing to bet red, to which he replied that his odds for hitting black were 50/50 no matter what the previous outcomes were. (Law of independent trials) While I understand that, wouldn't you expect red and black to even out.....For example, if the game hit red 9 out of the last 10 times, wouldnt the odds be incredibly slim to hit red 16-18 out of 20? (.5 not red * .5 not red * .5 not red etc etc.) Wouldnt the odds be better for the game to even out somewhat?
Which leads me to the question about the martingale. (I know the Martingale doesn't work in the long run, however, I'm looking for someone to explain more specifically how it doesn't)
Let's say you lose 12 or so hands in a row, which will happen say approx. 3 or so times out of every 8 hours of session. This means that losing 12 or so hands in a row is less than half a percent assuming the player wins 39-41% of all hands dealt. Therefore, wouldn't you expect that as you continually lose hands, that the odds (based on averages) would say that the chances of you losing the upcoming hand become increasingly smaller and smaller. And every time I read the negatives about the Martingale progressives, it uses the 12-16 hand losing streak example (16 and beyond im assuming getting into the 4 and 5 Standard Deviation range), so it would seem that the negatives are using the exception as the example. I hope I was clear and anyone with any advice who can clarify this for me is greatly appreciated.
Thanks and good playing everyone!
CollegeDude
One other thing I have trouble understanding, that has somewhat to do with the Martingale system and Law of Independent Trials.
Okay, I remember reading a player about a player at a Roulette table where the table had hit red 9/10 times before he arrived. He continued to bet red and won but eventually broke even. He stated another gambler telling him he was dumb for continuing to bet red, to which he replied that his odds for hitting black were 50/50 no matter what the previous outcomes were. (Law of independent trials) While I understand that, wouldn't you expect red and black to even out.....For example, if the game hit red 9 out of the last 10 times, wouldnt the odds be incredibly slim to hit red 16-18 out of 20? (.5 not red * .5 not red * .5 not red etc etc.) Wouldnt the odds be better for the game to even out somewhat?
Which leads me to the question about the martingale. (I know the Martingale doesn't work in the long run, however, I'm looking for someone to explain more specifically how it doesn't)
Let's say you lose 12 or so hands in a row, which will happen say approx. 3 or so times out of every 8 hours of session. This means that losing 12 or so hands in a row is less than half a percent assuming the player wins 39-41% of all hands dealt. Therefore, wouldn't you expect that as you continually lose hands, that the odds (based on averages) would say that the chances of you losing the upcoming hand become increasingly smaller and smaller. And every time I read the negatives about the Martingale progressives, it uses the 12-16 hand losing streak example (16 and beyond im assuming getting into the 4 and 5 Standard Deviation range), so it would seem that the negatives are using the exception as the example. I hope I was clear and anyone with any advice who can clarify this for me is greatly appreciated.
Thanks and good playing everyone!
CollegeDude